Reply by Phil Hobbs March 15, 20132013-03-15
On 3/14/2013 11:49 PM, bloggs.fredbloggs.fred@gmail.com wrote:
> On Saturday, March 9, 2013 7:46:14 PM UTC-5, Phil Hobbs wrote: >> On 3/9/2013 6:51 PM, bloggs.fredbloggs.fred@gmail.com wrote: >> >>> On Friday, March 8, 2013 3:59:36 PM UTC-5, Phil Hobbs wrote: >> >>> >> >>>> It's actually more general than that--there's a Fourier transform >> >>>> theorem that variances add under convolution, ... >> >>> There is? It seems that is a result only for normal distributions. >> >> >> >> Yup. From the derivative theorem, the variance is proportional to the >> >> second derivative of the transform, evaluated at zero frequency. To >> >> within a constant factor that depends on your Fourier transform definition, >> >> >> >> int(-inf to inf) [t**2 * h(t)] >> >> var(h) = ------------------------------- = H''(0)/H(0) >> >> int(-inf to inf) [h(t)] >> >> >> >> Because the function is real, its transform is Hermitian, i.e. the real >> >> part is even and the imaginary part is odd. Even-order derivatives of >> >> an odd function vanish at the origin, as do odd-order derivatives of an >> >> even function. >> >> >> >> When you convolve g(t) and h(t), the transform is G(f)H(f). The >> >> variance of this is proportional to the normalized second derivative at >> >> the origin, as before. Ignoring a possible constant of proportionality >> >> that we don't care about, >> >> >> >> d(GH)/df = GH' + HG' so >> >> >> >> d**2/df**2[GH]| H(0)G''(0) + G(0)H''(0) + 2G'H' >> >> var(g*h) = --------------| = ------------------------------- >> >> GH |f=0 H(0)G(0) >> >> >> >> G''(0) H''(0) 2G'(0)H'(0) >> >> = ------- + -------- + ------------ >> >> G(0) H(0) H(0)G(0) >> >> >> >> The first term is the variance of G, the second is the variance of H, >> >> and the third is zero if either G or H is an even function. >> >> >> >> There is a slightly more subtle condition that will make the third term >> >> zero for any choice of g and h: that the first moment of either h(t) or >> >> g(t) is zero, i.e. that at least one of them has its centroid at t=0, >> >> which makes its first derivative zero at f=0. >> >> >> >> It is always possible to satisfy this condition by an appropriate choice >> >> of the time origin, so if you'll allow me to slide over that rather >> >> trivial issue(*), variances add under convolution. >> >> >> >> Cheers >> >> >> >> Phil Hobbs >> >> >> >> (*) The reason for this is the effect of a shift of origin on the >> >> variance. If you convolve a function centred at t=5 with one centred at >> >> t=3, the convolution's centroid is at t=8. If you're computing the >> >> variance as the second moment about t=0, this will make a big >> >> difference, but it doesn't change the shape of the resulting convolution >> >> function. Forcing one of them to have its centroid at 0 gets rid of >> >> this shift of time origin. >>
> > Okay, thanks, don't think I've run into that kind of general analysis before. There is a more thorough rehash here: > Circuits, Signals, and Systems, Volume 2 > By William McC. Siebert > > Chap 16, but they omit the pages getting into the blasted second moments analysis: > > http://books.google.com/books?id=zBTUiIrb2WIC&pg=PA42&dq=Circuits,+Signals,+and+Systems,+Volume+2++By+William+McC.+Siebert&hl=en&sa=X&ei=LphCUaanBbWo4AP5-YCoBA&ved=0CDgQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=Circuits%2C%20Signals%2C%20and%20Systems%2C%20Volume%202%20%20By%20William%20McC.%20Siebert&f=false >
Fourier and two-sided Laplace transforms are of course equivalent (requiring only a trivial change of variables). I learned about one-sided Laplace transforms in some undergrad math class, and promptly ditched them because the inverse is such a mess. I don't think I've ever used a one-sided transform in real life. When I need to worry about the implicit step function due to causality constraints or boundary conditions, I can put that in by hand at the end, instead of carrying it along throughout the calculation, which is a huge pain and completely unnecessary. (I do often use the s notation instead of j 2 pi f, because it saves writing and reduces blunders.) I'm a big fan of the Bracewell approach, probably partly because he was such an engaging lecturer, but mostly because it's so useful and so easy to remember once you get the hang of it. http://www.amazon.com/The-Fourier-Transform-Its-Applications/dp/0073039381 Cheers Phil Hobbs -- Dr Philip C D Hobbs Principal Consultant ElectroOptical Innovations LLC Optics, Electro-optics, Photonics, Analog Electronics 160 North State Road #203 Briarcliff Manor NY 10510 USA +1 845 480 2058 hobbs at electrooptical dot net http://electrooptical.net
Reply by March 15, 20132013-03-15
On Saturday, March 9, 2013 7:46:14 PM UTC-5, Phil Hobbs wrote:
> On 3/9/2013 6:51 PM, bloggs.fredbloggs.fred@gmail.com wrote: >=20 > > On Friday, March 8, 2013 3:59:36 PM UTC-5, Phil Hobbs wrote: >=20 > > >=20 > >> It's actually more general than that--there's a Fourier transform >=20 > >> theorem that variances add under convolution, ... >=20 > > There is? It seems that is a result only for normal distributions. >=20 >=20 >=20 > Yup. From the derivative theorem, the variance is proportional to the=20 >=20 > second derivative of the transform, evaluated at zero frequency. To=20 >=20 > within a constant factor that depends on your Fourier transform definitio=
n,
>=20 >=20 >=20 > int(-inf to inf) [t**2 * h(t)] >=20 > var(h) =3D ------------------------------- =3D H''(0)/H(0) >=20 > int(-inf to inf) [h(t)] >=20 >=20 >=20 > Because the function is real, its transform is Hermitian, i.e. the real=
=20
>=20 > part is even and the imaginary part is odd. Even-order derivatives of=20 >=20 > an odd function vanish at the origin, as do odd-order derivatives of an=
=20
>=20 > even function. >=20 >=20 >=20 > When you convolve g(t) and h(t), the transform is G(f)H(f). The=20 >=20 > variance of this is proportional to the normalized second derivative at=
=20
>=20 > the origin, as before. Ignoring a possible constant of proportionality=
=20
>=20 > that we don't care about, >=20 >=20 >=20 > d(GH)/df =3D GH' + HG' so >=20 >=20 >=20 > d**2/df**2[GH]| H(0)G''(0) + G(0)H''(0) + 2G'H' >=20 > var(g*h) =3D --------------| =3D ------------------------------- >=20 > GH |f=3D0 H(0)G(0) >=20 >=20 >=20 > G''(0) H''(0) 2G'(0)H'(0) >=20 > =3D ------- + -------- + ------------ >=20 > G(0) H(0) H(0)G(0) >=20 >=20 >=20 > The first term is the variance of G, the second is the variance of H,=20 >=20 > and the third is zero if either G or H is an even function. >=20 >=20 >=20 > There is a slightly more subtle condition that will make the third term=
=20
>=20 > zero for any choice of g and h: that the first moment of either h(t) or=
=20
>=20 > g(t) is zero, i.e. that at least one of them has its centroid at t=3D0,=
=20
>=20 > which makes its first derivative zero at f=3D0. >=20 >=20 >=20 > It is always possible to satisfy this condition by an appropriate choice=
=20
>=20 > of the time origin, so if you'll allow me to slide over that rather=20 >=20 > trivial issue(*), variances add under convolution. >=20 >=20 >=20 > Cheers >=20 >=20 >=20 > Phil Hobbs >=20 >=20 >=20 > (*) The reason for this is the effect of a shift of origin on the=20 >=20 > variance. If you convolve a function centred at t=3D5 with one centred a=
t=20
>=20 > t=3D3, the convolution's centroid is at t=3D8. If you're computing the=
=20
>=20 > variance as the second moment about t=3D0, this will make a big=20 >=20 > difference, but it doesn't change the shape of the resulting convolution=
=20
>=20 > function. Forcing one of them to have its centroid at 0 gets rid of=20 >=20 > this shift of time origin. >=20 >=20 >=20 > --=20 >=20 > Dr Philip C D Hobbs >=20 > Principal Consultant >=20 > ElectroOptical Innovations LLC >=20 > Optics, Electro-optics, Photonics, Analog Electronics >=20 >=20 >=20 > 160 North State Road #203 >=20 > Briarcliff Manor NY 10510 USA >=20 > +1 845 480 2058 >=20 >=20 >=20 > hobbs at electrooptical dot net >=20 > http://electrooptical.net
Okay, thanks, don't think I've run into that kind of general analysis befor= e. There is a more thorough rehash here: Circuits, Signals, and Systems, Volume 2 By William McC. Siebert Chap 16, but they omit the pages getting into the blasted second moments an= alysis: http://books.google.com/books?id=3DzBTUiIrb2WIC&pg=3DPA42&dq=3DCircuits,+Si= gnals,+and+Systems,+Volume+2++By+William+McC.+Siebert&hl=3Den&sa=3DX&ei=3DL= phCUaanBbWo4AP5-YCoBA&ved=3D0CDgQ6AEwAA#v=3Donepage&q=3DCircuits%2C%20Signa= ls%2C%20and%20Systems%2C%20Volume%202%20%20By%20William%20McC.%20Siebert&f= =3Dfalse
Reply by Phil Hobbs March 11, 20132013-03-11
On 03/11/2013 10:00 AM, George Herold wrote:
> On Mar 9, 10:06 pm, Phil Hobbs > <pcdhSpamMeSensel...@electrooptical.net> wrote: >> On 3/9/2013 8:05 PM, George Herold wrote: >> >> >> >> >> >>> On Mar 9, 7:46 pm, Phil Hobbs <pcdhSpamMeSensel...@electrooptical.net> >>> wrote: >>>> On 3/9/2013 6:51 PM, bloggs.fredbloggs.f...@gmail.com wrote: >> >>>>> On Friday, March 8, 2013 3:59:36 PM UTC-5, Phil Hobbs wrote: >> >>>>>> It's actually more general than that--there's a Fourier transform >>>>>> theorem that variances add under convolution, ... >>>>> There is? It seems that is a result only for normal distributions. >> >>>> Yup. From the derivative theorem, the variance is proportional to the >>>> second derivative of the transform, evaluated at zero frequency. To >>>> within a constant factor that depends on your Fourier transform definition, >> >>>> int(-inf to inf) [t**2 * h(t)] >>>> var(h) = ------------------------------- = H''(0)/H(0) >>>> int(-inf to inf) [h(t)] >> >>>> Because the function is real, its transform is Hermitian, i.e. the real >>>> part is even and the imaginary part is odd. Even-order derivatives of >>>> an odd function vanish at the origin, as do odd-order derivatives of an >>>> even function. >> >>>> When you convolve g(t) and h(t), the transform is G(f)H(f). The >>>> variance of this is proportional to the normalized second derivative at >>>> the origin, as before. Ignoring a possible constant of proportionality >>>> that we don't care about, >> >>>> d(GH)/df = GH' + HG' so >> >>>> d**2/df**2[GH]| H(0)G''(0) + G(0)H''(0) + 2G'H' >>>> var(g*h) = --------------| = ------------------------------- >>>> GH |f=0 H(0)G(0) >> >>>> G''(0) H''(0) 2G'(0)H'(0) >>>> = ------- + -------- + ------------ >>>> G(0) H(0) H(0)G(0) >> >>>> The first term is the variance of G, the second is the variance of H, >>>> and the third is zero if either G or H is an even function. >> >>>> There is a slightly more subtle condition that will make the third term >>>> zero for any choice of g and h: that the first moment of either h(t) or >>>> g(t) is zero, i.e. that at least one of them has its centroid at t=0, >>>> which makes its first derivative zero at f=0. >> >>>> It is always possible to satisfy this condition by an appropriate choice >>>> of the time origin, so if you'll allow me to slide over that rather >>>> trivial issue(*), variances add under convolution. >> >>>> Cheers >> >>>> Phil Hobbs >> >>>> (*) The reason for this is the effect of a shift of origin on the >>>> variance. If you convolve a function centred at t=5 with one centred at >>>> t=3, the convolution's centroid is at t=8. If you're computing the >>>> variance as the second moment about t=0, this will make a big >>>> difference, but it doesn't change the shape of the resulting convolution >>>> function. Forcing one of them to have its centroid at 0 gets rid of >>>> this shift of time origin. >> >>> Awesome... (Be careful what you ask for.) >> >>> Phil, If I mix two lasers together on a photodiode and look at the >>> bandwidth of the beat note to measure the laser bandwidth.. Is the >>> measured bandwidth the quadrature sum of the individual lasers (as >>> above for rise times, noise..) or does the power law nature of the PD >>> put a twist on it? >> >> Hmm, no good deed goes unpunished. ;) >> >> The PD is square law, but it isn't E**2, it's |E**2|, so to be >> completely safe you have to stay in real-valued functions (sin and cos) >> and not complex exponentials. (At least at first.) >> >> Assuming that the relative phase of the two beams depends only on time, >> i.e. that they're both really really single transverse mode, then >> shining E1(x, y, t) and E2(x, y, t) on a sufficiently large photodiode >> will get you >> >> i_photo(t) = int(-inf < x < inf) int(-inf < y < inf)[ R|(E1(x,y,t) + >> E2(x,y,t)|**2]dxdy >> >> = R int int[ |E1|**2 + |E2|**2 + 2 Re{E1 E2*}]dxdy >> >> where R is some constant (R is the responsivity if E**2 has units of >> watts per square metre, but it doesn't matter here). >> >> With a large enough beat frequency, we can regard E1**2 and E2**2 as DC >> and filter them out. (Since the negative frequencies are twice as far >> away as that, we can use the complex exponential notation with no >> worries.) So at AC, all we get is >> >> i_AC = 2R Re {int int[ E1(x,y,t)E2*(x,y,t)]dxdy } >> >> If both lasers are single transverse mode, this integral is proportional >> to Re{E1(0,0,t) E2*(0,0,t)}. Since the beat frequency is large, we >> sample all relative phases of E1 and E2 much more rapidly than their >> fluctuations, so we pretty much get an honest multiplication. >> Multiplying them in the time domain is convolving them in the frequency >> domain, so yes, the frequency variances add, *provided they're computed >> around the nominal beat frequency*. Of course nobody in his right mind >> would do anything else, but a computer might. ;) >> >> The only thing that modifies this significantly is the frequency >> response of the photodiode and the electrical measurement system. >> >> Cheers >> >> Phil Hobbs >> >> -- >> Dr Philip C D Hobbs >> Principal Consultant >> ElectroOptical Innovations LLC >> Optics, Electro-optics, Photonics, Analog Electronics >> >> 160 North State Road #203 >> Briarcliff Manor NY 10510 USA >> +1 845 480 2058 >> >> hobbs at electrooptical dot nethttp://electrooptical.net- Hide quoted text - >> >> - Show quoted text - > > Cool, thanks Phil, (In practice I just quote the laser bandwidth as > the beat note bandwidth and ignore the above convolution.) > Ahh, what's the line about the PD size "on a sufficiently large > photodiode" refer too? > (I used this tiny EOT photodiode ET-2030.) > > George H. >
If the PD is too small, spatial fringes won't average out to zero, so orthogonality doesn't quite work. Cheers Phil Hobbs -- Dr Philip C D Hobbs Principal Consultant ElectroOptical Innovations LLC Optics, Electro-optics, Photonics, Analog Electronics 160 North State Road #203 Briarcliff Manor NY 10510 hobbs at electrooptical dot net http://electrooptical.net
Reply by Phil Hobbs March 11, 20132013-03-11
On 03/11/2013 07:31 AM, JW wrote:
> On Sat, 9 Mar 2013 13:32:18 -0800 (PST) Bill Sloman <bill.sloman@ieee.org> > wrote in Message id: > <e3ac026f-b80e-4710-baa9-beb3ab2e79f7@c6g2000yqh.googlegroups.com>: > >> >> Do you have a specific connector in mind? SMA crapped out at 18GHz. >> Somebody has obviously introduced something better since then, but >> Farnell wasn't stocking whatever it is when I last looked, > > SMP? > > http://www.molex.com/molex/products/family?key=smp&channel=products&chanName=family&pageTitle=Introduction&parentKey=rf_microwave_coax_connectors >
1.8 mm usually. Cheers Phil Hobbs -- Dr Philip C D Hobbs Principal Consultant ElectroOptical Innovations LLC Optics, Electro-optics, Photonics, Analog Electronics 160 North State Road #203 Briarcliff Manor NY 10510 hobbs at electrooptical dot net http://electrooptical.net
Reply by George Herold March 11, 20132013-03-11
On Mar 9, 10:06=A0pm, Phil Hobbs
<pcdhSpamMeSensel...@electrooptical.net> wrote:
> On 3/9/2013 8:05 PM, George Herold wrote: > > > > > > > On Mar 9, 7:46 pm, Phil Hobbs <pcdhSpamMeSensel...@electrooptical.net> > > wrote: > >> On 3/9/2013 6:51 PM, bloggs.fredbloggs.f...@gmail.com wrote: > > >>> On Friday, March 8, 2013 3:59:36 PM UTC-5, Phil Hobbs wrote: > > >>>> It's actually more general than that--there's a Fourier transform > >>>> theorem that variances add under convolution, ... > >>> There is? It seems that is a result only for normal distributions. > > >> Yup. =A0From the derivative theorem, the variance is proportional to t=
he
> >> second derivative of the transform, evaluated at zero frequency. =A0To > >> within a constant factor that depends on your Fourier transform defini=
tion,
> > >> =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0int(-inf to inf) [t**2 * h(t)] > >> var(h) =3D ------------------------------- =3D H''(0)/H(0) > >> =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0int(-inf to inf) [h(t)] > > >> Because the function is real, its transform is Hermitian, i.e. the rea=
l
> >> part is even and the imaginary part is odd. =A0Even-order derivatives =
of
> >> an odd function vanish at the origin, as do odd-order derivatives of a=
n
> >> even function. > > >> When you convolve g(t) and h(t), the transform is G(f)H(f). =A0The > >> variance of this is proportional to the normalized second derivative a=
t
> >> the origin, as before. =A0Ignoring a possible constant of proportional=
ity
> >> that we don't care about, > > >> d(GH)/df =3D GH' + HG' so > > >> =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0d**2/df**2[GH]| =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 H(0)G''(0) =
+ G(0)H''(0) + 2G'H'
> >> var(g*h) =3D --------------| =A0 =A0 =A0=3D =A0-----------------------=
--------
> >> =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 GH =A0 =A0 =A0 |f=3D0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =
=A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 H(0)G(0)
> > >> =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 G''(0) =A0 =A0H''(0) =A0 =A02G'(0)H'(0) > >> =A0 =A0 =3D =A0------- + -------- + ------------ > >> =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0 =A0G(0) =A0 =A0 =A0H(0) =A0 =A0 =A0 H(0)G(0) > > >> The first term is the variance of G, the second is the variance of H, > >> and the third is zero if either G or H is an even function. > > >> There is a slightly more subtle condition that will make the third ter=
m
> >> zero for any choice of g and h: that the first moment of either h(t) o=
r
> >> g(t) is zero, i.e. that at least one of them has its centroid at t=3D0=
,
> >> which makes its first derivative zero at f=3D0. > > >> It is always possible to satisfy this condition by an appropriate choi=
ce
> >> of the time origin, so if you'll allow me to slide over that rather > >> trivial issue(*), =A0variances add under convolution. > > >> Cheers > > >> Phil Hobbs > > >> (*) The reason for this is the effect of a shift of origin on the > >> variance. =A0If you convolve a function centred at t=3D5 with one cent=
red at
> >> t=3D3, the convolution's centroid is at t=3D8. =A0If you're computing =
the
> >> variance as the second moment about t=3D0, this will make a big > >> difference, but it doesn't change the shape of the resulting convoluti=
on
> >> function. =A0Forcing one of them to have its centroid at 0 gets rid of > >> this shift of time origin. > > > Awesome... (Be careful what you ask for.) > > > Phil, If I mix two lasers together on a photodiode and look at the > > bandwidth of the beat note to measure the laser bandwidth.. Is the > > measured bandwidth the quadrature sum of the individual lasers (as > > above for rise times, noise..) or does the power law nature of the PD > > put a twist on it? > > Hmm, no good deed goes unpunished. ;) > > The PD is square law, but it isn't E**2, it's |E**2|, so to be > completely safe you have to stay in real-valued functions (sin and cos) > and not complex exponentials. (At least at first.) > > Assuming that the relative phase of the two beams depends only on time, > i.e. that they're both really really single transverse mode, then > shining E1(x, y, t) and E2(x, y, t) on a sufficiently large photodiode > will get you > > i_photo(t) =3D int(-inf < x < inf) int(-inf < y < inf)[ R|(E1(x,y,t) + > E2(x,y,t)|**2]dxdy > > =3D R int int[ |E1|**2 + |E2|**2 + 2 Re{E1 E2*}]dxdy > > where R is some constant (R is the responsivity if E**2 has units of > watts per square metre, but it doesn't matter here). > > With a large enough beat frequency, we can regard E1**2 and E2**2 as DC > and filter them out. =A0(Since the negative frequencies are twice as far > away as that, we can use the complex exponential notation with no > worries.) =A0So at AC, all we get is > > i_AC =3D 2R Re {int int[ E1(x,y,t)E2*(x,y,t)]dxdy } > > If both lasers are single transverse mode, this integral is proportional > to Re{E1(0,0,t) E2*(0,0,t)}. =A0Since the beat frequency is large, we > sample all relative phases of E1 and E2 much more rapidly than their > fluctuations, so we pretty much get an honest multiplication. > Multiplying them in the time domain is convolving them in the frequency > domain, so yes, the frequency variances add, *provided they're computed > around the nominal beat frequency*. =A0Of course nobody in his right mind > would do anything else, but a computer might. ;) > > The only thing that modifies this significantly is the frequency > response of the photodiode and the electrical measurement system. > > Cheers > > Phil Hobbs > > -- > Dr Philip C D Hobbs > Principal Consultant > ElectroOptical Innovations LLC > Optics, Electro-optics, Photonics, Analog Electronics > > 160 North State Road #203 > Briarcliff Manor NY 10510 USA > +1 845 480 2058 > > hobbs at electrooptical dot nethttp://electrooptical.net- Hide quoted tex=
t -
> > - Show quoted text -
Cool, thanks Phil, (In practice I just quote the laser bandwidth as the beat note bandwidth and ignore the above convolution.) Ahh, what's the line about the PD size "on a sufficiently large photodiode" refer too? (I used this tiny EOT photodiode ET-2030.) George H.
Reply by JW March 11, 20132013-03-11
On Sat, 9 Mar 2013 13:32:18 -0800 (PST) Bill Sloman <bill.sloman@ieee.org>
wrote in Message id:
<e3ac026f-b80e-4710-baa9-beb3ab2e79f7@c6g2000yqh.googlegroups.com>:

> >Do you have a specific connector in mind? SMA crapped out at 18GHz. >Somebody has obviously introduced something better since then, but >Farnell wasn't stocking whatever it is when I last looked,
SMP? http://www.molex.com/molex/products/family?key=smp&channel=products&chanName=family&pageTitle=Introduction&parentKey=rf_microwave_coax_connectors
Reply by John Larkin March 10, 20132013-03-10
On Sun, 10 Mar 2013 09:45:33 -0700, Fred Abse <excretatauris@invalid.invalid>
wrote:

>On Sat, 09 Mar 2013 14:53:55 -0800, John Larkin wrote: > >> Here it is: >> >> https://dl.dropbox.com/u/53724080/Gear/DPO2024_rise.JPG >> >> Frankly, Tektronix is cheating. > >Using the "0.35" rule, 1.865ns equates to 187.7MHz BW. > >Not far below 200MHz, which is 1.75ns.
Tek scopes used to give you gaussian response and a bit more than the specified bandwidth, not less. It's like Budweiser watering down the beer.
> >I can think of a few reasons: > >Were you using a hi-Z probe, or a 50 ohm (internal or external?) >terminated measurement?
I connected an SD24 TDR head to the scope input through a short hardline. The SD makes a roughly 20 ps, ultra-clean 50-ohm step.
> >Interestingly, a 200MHz scope with a 500MHz probe, theoretically, would >show 1.88ns risetime (186MHz BW). > >I've seen some commercial BNC through terminations start to get >sticky around 200MHz, and be quite useless at 500MHz. An SMA terminator on >a tee with adaptors outperforms quite dramatically.
I used a short SMA-SMA hardline and an SMA-BNC adapter. That should be good to several GHz. BNCs are surprisingly good.
> >If your scope provides 50 ohm inputs, I'd be inclined to TDR them. > >Another point; how does that scope measure risetime? Does it calculate the >10% and 90% from the peak of the overshoot (wrong), or from the flat >portion (correct)?
Don't know. It does overshoot enough to matter. -- John Larkin Highland Technology Inc www.highlandtechnology.com jlarkin at highlandtechnology dot com Precision electronic instrumentation Picosecond-resolution Digital Delay and Pulse generators Custom timing and laser controllers Photonics and fiberoptic TTL data links VME analog, thermocouple, LVDT, synchro, tachometer Multichannel arbitrary waveform generators
Reply by Fred Abse March 10, 20132013-03-10
On Sat, 09 Mar 2013 14:53:55 -0800, John Larkin wrote:

> Here it is: > > https://dl.dropbox.com/u/53724080/Gear/DPO2024_rise.JPG > > Frankly, Tektronix is cheating.
Using the "0.35" rule, 1.865ns equates to 187.7MHz BW. Not far below 200MHz, which is 1.75ns. I can think of a few reasons: Were you using a hi-Z probe, or a 50 ohm (internal or external?) terminated measurement? Interestingly, a 200MHz scope with a 500MHz probe, theoretically, would show 1.88ns risetime (186MHz BW). I've seen some commercial BNC through terminations start to get sticky around 200MHz, and be quite useless at 500MHz. An SMA terminator on a tee with adaptors outperforms quite dramatically. If your scope provides 50 ohm inputs, I'd be inclined to TDR them. Another point; how does that scope measure risetime? Does it calculate the 10% and 90% from the peak of the overshoot (wrong), or from the flat portion (correct)? -- "For a successful technology, reality must take precedence over public relations, for nature cannot be fooled." (Richard Feynman)
Reply by Phil Hobbs March 9, 20132013-03-09
On 3/9/2013 8:05 PM, George Herold wrote:
> On Mar 9, 7:46 pm, Phil Hobbs <pcdhSpamMeSensel...@electrooptical.net> > wrote: >> On 3/9/2013 6:51 PM, bloggs.fredbloggs.f...@gmail.com wrote: >> >>> On Friday, March 8, 2013 3:59:36 PM UTC-5, Phil Hobbs wrote: >> >>>> It's actually more general than that--there's a Fourier transform >>>> theorem that variances add under convolution, ... >>> There is? It seems that is a result only for normal distributions. >> >> Yup. From the derivative theorem, the variance is proportional to the >> second derivative of the transform, evaluated at zero frequency. To >> within a constant factor that depends on your Fourier transform definition, >> >> int(-inf to inf) [t**2 * h(t)] >> var(h) = ------------------------------- = H''(0)/H(0) >> int(-inf to inf) [h(t)] >> >> Because the function is real, its transform is Hermitian, i.e. the real >> part is even and the imaginary part is odd. Even-order derivatives of >> an odd function vanish at the origin, as do odd-order derivatives of an >> even function. >> >> When you convolve g(t) and h(t), the transform is G(f)H(f). The >> variance of this is proportional to the normalized second derivative at >> the origin, as before. Ignoring a possible constant of proportionality >> that we don't care about, >> >> d(GH)/df = GH' + HG' so >> >> d**2/df**2[GH]| H(0)G''(0) + G(0)H''(0) + 2G'H' >> var(g*h) = --------------| = ------------------------------- >> GH |f=0 H(0)G(0) >> >> G''(0) H''(0) 2G'(0)H'(0) >> = ------- + -------- + ------------ >> G(0) H(0) H(0)G(0) >> >> The first term is the variance of G, the second is the variance of H, >> and the third is zero if either G or H is an even function. >> >> There is a slightly more subtle condition that will make the third term >> zero for any choice of g and h: that the first moment of either h(t) or >> g(t) is zero, i.e. that at least one of them has its centroid at t=0, >> which makes its first derivative zero at f=0. >> >> It is always possible to satisfy this condition by an appropriate choice >> of the time origin, so if you'll allow me to slide over that rather >> trivial issue(*), variances add under convolution. >> >> Cheers >> >> Phil Hobbs >> >> (*) The reason for this is the effect of a shift of origin on the >> variance. If you convolve a function centred at t=5 with one centred at >> t=3, the convolution's centroid is at t=8. If you're computing the >> variance as the second moment about t=0, this will make a big >> difference, but it doesn't change the shape of the resulting convolution >> function. Forcing one of them to have its centroid at 0 gets rid of >> this shift of time origin.
> > Awesome... (Be careful what you ask for.) > > Phil, If I mix two lasers together on a photodiode and look at the > bandwidth of the beat note to measure the laser bandwidth.. Is the > measured bandwidth the quadrature sum of the individual lasers (as > above for rise times, noise..) or does the power law nature of the PD > put a twist on it? >
Hmm, no good deed goes unpunished. ;) The PD is square law, but it isn't E**2, it's |E**2|, so to be completely safe you have to stay in real-valued functions (sin and cos) and not complex exponentials. (At least at first.) Assuming that the relative phase of the two beams depends only on time, i.e. that they're both really really single transverse mode, then shining E1(x, y, t) and E2(x, y, t) on a sufficiently large photodiode will get you i_photo(t) = int(-inf < x < inf) int(-inf < y < inf)[ R|(E1(x,y,t) + E2(x,y,t)|**2]dxdy = R int int[ |E1|**2 + |E2|**2 + 2 Re{E1 E2*}]dxdy where R is some constant (R is the responsivity if E**2 has units of watts per square metre, but it doesn't matter here). With a large enough beat frequency, we can regard E1**2 and E2**2 as DC and filter them out. (Since the negative frequencies are twice as far away as that, we can use the complex exponential notation with no worries.) So at AC, all we get is i_AC = 2R Re {int int[ E1(x,y,t)E2*(x,y,t)]dxdy } If both lasers are single transverse mode, this integral is proportional to Re{E1(0,0,t) E2*(0,0,t)}. Since the beat frequency is large, we sample all relative phases of E1 and E2 much more rapidly than their fluctuations, so we pretty much get an honest multiplication. Multiplying them in the time domain is convolving them in the frequency domain, so yes, the frequency variances add, *provided they're computed around the nominal beat frequency*. Of course nobody in his right mind would do anything else, but a computer might. ;) The only thing that modifies this significantly is the frequency response of the photodiode and the electrical measurement system. Cheers Phil Hobbs -- Dr Philip C D Hobbs Principal Consultant ElectroOptical Innovations LLC Optics, Electro-optics, Photonics, Analog Electronics 160 North State Road #203 Briarcliff Manor NY 10510 USA +1 845 480 2058 hobbs at electrooptical dot net http://electrooptical.net
Reply by John Larkin March 9, 20132013-03-09
On Sat, 9 Mar 2013 16:24:42 -0800 (PST), George Herold <gherold@teachspin.com>
wrote:

>On Mar 9, 6:40&#4294967295;pm, John Larkin ><jjlar...@highNOTlandTHIStechnologyPART.com> wrote: >> On Fri, 8 Mar 2013 17:31:47 -0800 (PST), George Herold <gher...@teachspin.com> >> wrote: >> >> >> >> >> >> >On Mar 8, 9:38&#4294967295;am, Spehro Pefhany <speffS...@interlogDOTyou.knowwhat> >> >wrote: >> >> On Fri, 8 Mar 2013 05:45:37 -0800 (PST), George Herold >> >> >> <gher...@teachspin.com> wrote: >> >> >On Mar 8, 12:44&#4294967295;am, bloggs.fredbloggs.f...@gmail.com wrote: >> >> >> On Thursday, March 7, 2013 11:14:01 PM UTC-5, Vladimir Vassilevsky wrote: >> >> >> > truth? Take a good scope, pulse generator and see for yourself. >> >> >> >> Okay, you know what you measured, but you need to be real careful with layout using that parts family. It used to be a point of advantage for a logic family that it was unresponsive to full logic level transitions of duration less than the fastest edge rates in the system. Interwiring capacitive coupling into a nice high impedance input converts the transition into a nice square pulse there. I think Lenin covered that one. >> >> >> >Hi Fred, As Vlad said the HC series was really doing just fine with >> >> >10ns pulses and perhaps only 'missing' 1% &#4294967295;of the 5 or 6 ns ones. &#4294967295;I >> >> >> The tinylogic one-shot that John mentioned is guaranteed to trigger >> >> off 2.5ns pulses (with a 5V 'Vcc'). Available in a nice friendly >> >> 0.65mm pitch 8-pin package (also a 0.5mm pitch or 1 x 2mm BGA if you >> >> are in need of pain). >> >> >Sweet, I think a nice one shot is the right medicine. >> >It looks like I'll stretch it out to ~200ns, not a big deal >> >with 1us bins, the first time bin is ~20% 'short'. >> >We'll document it in the manual and specs, >> >70% of our users will never notice. >> >> >Hey, we should use the 200ns pulse as the monitor output! >> >maybe they'll notice if it's on the 'scope. >> >> >I'm not sure why I didn't have a one-shot in to begin with. >> >(there's been some 'vibe' that one shots are bad.(?) >> >It all seems so obvious in retrospect. >> >> One-shots are politically incorrect, the legacy of days past when far too many >> people designed asynchronous, hazardous, glitchy hairballs. Moto sold a DTL part >> that was absurdly noise sensitive, and that contributed to the bad reputation. >> >> They can be handy, used carefully. >> >> -- >> >> John Larkin &#4294967295; &#4294967295; &#4294967295; &#4294967295; &#4294967295; &#4294967295; &#4294967295; &#4294967295; &#4294967295;Highland Technology Incwww.highlandtechnology.com&#4294967295; jlarkin at highlandtechnology dot com >> >> Precision electronic instrumentation >> Picosecond-resolution Digital Delay and Pulse generators >> Custom timing and laser controllers >> Photonics and fiberoptic TTL data links >> VME &#4294967295;analog, thermocouple, LVDT, synchro, tachometer >> Multichannel arbitrary waveform generators- Hide quoted text - >> >> - Show quoted text - > >The last time I used a one shot was back in '93. (real TTL) >Two of them set the pulse lengths in a NMR spectrometer. > >George H.
They are handy for winking LEDs. And there is my almost-famous double-tach/FM discriminator circuit: https://dl.dropbox.com/u/53724080/Circuits/DoubleTach.jpg -- John Larkin Highland Technology Inc www.highlandtechnology.com jlarkin at highlandtechnology dot com Precision electronic instrumentation Picosecond-resolution Digital Delay and Pulse generators Custom timing and laser controllers Photonics and fiberoptic TTL data links VME analog, thermocouple, LVDT, synchro, tachometer Multichannel arbitrary waveform generators